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Review Questions

1
Review 1

A 19 year old with a history of bulimia presents with depression and anxiety. She has tried a variety of antidepressants in the past and states upfront that she wants to avoid "anything that will cause sexual side effects or weight gain". Which of the following medications would you suggest trying first?

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good job! Because she has bulimia, she cannot take bupropion. Escitalopram, sertraline, and venlafaxine have a high likelihood of causing sexual side effects and mirtazapine has a high likelihood of causing weight gain. Therefore the best medication to start would be nefazadone. try againYour answer has been saved.
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2
Review 2

A 64 year old woman with depression is referred for antidepressant treatment. She has been experiencing depression periodically for 6 months, and has lost approximately 25 lbs. In addition to poor appetite, she is also bothered by very severe insomnia. Her medical problems include poorly controlled hypertension and diabetes. Which of the following might be the best medication to help with her most prominent symptoms?

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good job! Since her most prominent symptoms are problems with appetite and sleep, she would benefit most from the antihistiminergic properties of mirtazapine. All of the antidepressants would be effective for her depression, but buproprion and fluoxetine may be too activating in the short term. The desvenlafaxine may be problematic for her hypertension.try againYour answer has been saved.
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3
Review question 3

A 24 year old man presents with "out of the blue" panic attacks. He is interested in a medication but concerned about side effects. Which of the following would be the best medication for him?

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b)
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Good job! All of the serotonergic antidepressants would be effective for his panic disorder, but the fluoxetine may be too activating. The mirtazapine and venlafaxine , which are both dual agents, have significant side effects in comparison to the citalopram.Try againYour answer has been saved.
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4
Review question 4

A 56 year old woman is referred for medication management by her internist. In addition to depression, she also suffers from chronic back pain, migraines, and hypertension. Which of the following might be best for both her depression and her pain?

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Good job! While all of the medications are effective for the treatment of depression, there is evidence that the dual agents have some advantages in the treatment of chronic pain. Duloxetine in particular has been given the FDA indication for diabetic peripheral neuropathy and may be effective for other types of pain as well. Try againYour answer has been saved.
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